I think the answer is that there are only 2 such functions: the zero function and the identity function, but I'm not able to prove it.
A few findings:
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$f(0)=0$ and thus $f(a^2)=f(a)^2$.
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If $f(1)=0$, then $f(2^n)=0$ for all $n\in \mathbb N_0$; if $f(1)=1$, then $f(2^n)=2^n$ for all $n\in \mathcal N_0$ (can be proven by PMI).
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For any functions satisfying the condition, say $f,g$, $f\circ g$ also satisfies the condition.
Source of this problem: https://www2.math.binghamton.edu/p/pow/problem2f20
from Hot Weekly Questions - Mathematics Stack Exchange
Yuqiao Huang
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