By the help of Mathematica numeral calculations, I find the following formula holds
$$\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\binom{mn}{n}}{n}\left(\frac{(m-1)^{m-1}}{m^m} \right)^n=m\log\left(\frac{m}{m-1}\right)\quad ?$$
$m>1$ is a positive integer. But I can't prove it.
from Hot Weekly Questions - Mathematics Stack Exchange
Post a Comment